On Tue, Jan 19, 2010 at 02:57:02PM +0100, Joerg Schilling wrote:
Roger Whittaker
wrote: Pamela Jones wrote on this here: http://lwn.net/Articles/61292/
Even the heading is wrong.
She is generally thought to know something about these matters. Are you saying that what she has written here is entirely wrong, or just that it's inapplicable to Europe?
What principle makes this different in Germany?
I am talking about the European law system. As far as I know, the UK is part of the EU and thus bound to the European law system. I cannot speak for the current UK law wich may or may not be in conflict with the EU. The US have a system that differs but the EU has twice as many inhabitants as the US and for this reason, it makes a lot of sense to look at Europe...
Do you have a reference for how and why this is different in Europe? -- ======================== Roger Whittaker roger@disruptive.org.uk http://disruptive.org.uk ======================== -- To unsubscribe, e-mail: opensuse-factory+unsubscribe@opensuse.org For additional commands, e-mail: opensuse-factory+help@opensuse.org